D115 Practice Questions 3: Key Concepts in Immunology and Disease

D115 Practice Questions 3: Key Concepts in Immunology and Disease

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 Western Governors University

D115 Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse

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D115 Practice Questions 3: Key Concepts in Immunology and Disease

1. Which factor has the greatest impact on an antigen’s ability to provoke an immune response?
   a. Molecular size
   b. Structural complexity
   c. Amount present
   d. Degree of foreignness
2. Which statement best describes the secondary immune response?
   a. It includes a delay or latent phase.
   b. IgM antibodies are mainly produced.
   c. There is a marked rise in IgG antibody levels.
   d. Memory cells must be formed beforehand.
3. When explaining the role of natural killer (NK) cells, what is the most accurate description a nurse can give?
   a. NK cells cause apoptosis solely on their own.
   b. NK cells target cells displaying MHC class I molecules.
   c. NK cells do not have antigen-specific receptors.
   d. NK cells develop in the thymus gland.
4. What is the definition of alloimmunity?
   a. An immune response directed against tissue from another individual.
   b. Loss of immune tolerance toward self-antigens.
   c. Immune reaction to environmental allergens.
   d. Triggering of an anaphylactic reaction.
5. In a type I hypersensitivity reaction, what is the main pathological event?
   a. Antibodies bind to tissue-specific antigens.
   b. Immune complexes accumulate in blood vessels.
   c. T cells, rather than antibodies, mediate the response.
   d. IgE antibodies and mast cell mediators play a key role.
6. Autoimmunity occurs when:
   a. Molecular mimicry causes self-antigens to be targeted.
   b. The immune system rejects transplanted tissue.
   c. The body’s immune system attacks its own tissues.
   d. An acute rejection of a transplant happens.
7. Secondary immune deficiencies can be caused by:
   a. High dietary zinc intake.
   b. Providing care for an elderly person with Alzheimer’s.
   c. Taking prescribed aspirin.
   d. Inherited or congenital defects present at birth.
8. How are red blood cells destroyed in ABO blood type incompatibility reactions?
   a. Natural killer cells are responsible.
   b. Macrophages engulf the cells.
   c. Phagocytosis occurs primarily in the spleen.
   d. The complement system causes direct cell lysis.
9. What is the earliest window after sexual exposure to HIV when lab tests can detect infection?
   a. 1 to 2 days
   b. 4 to 10 days
   c. 4 to 8 weeks
   d. 2 to 4 months
10. Which feature accurately describes exotoxins?
    a. They are released during bacterial cell death.
    b. They are part of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria.
    c. They activate the complement and coagulation systems.
    d. They are secreted actively during bacterial growth.
11. A patient feels mild fatigue and discomfort after exposure to a family member with influenza. What stage of infection is this?
    a. Recovery (convalescent) phase
    b. Incubation period
    c. Prodromal phase
    d. Acute (invasive) stage
12. Which statement about parasitic infections is correct?
    a. Parasites use pili (fimbriae) to attach to host cells.
    b. Candida albicans is considered a parasitic infection.
    c. Parasites are only transmitted between people.
    d. Malaria is a common disease caused by parasites.
13. If a person with HIV develops pneumonia due to Pneumocystis jirovecii, what does this suggest?
    a. The person has adequate helper T cell counts.
    b. The person is HIV-positive but shows no symptoms.
    c. The person is in the early phase of HIV infection.
    d. The person has progressed to AIDS.
14. What is the typical mechanism of action for antibiotics?
    a. Protecting bacterial cell walls from damage.
    b. Inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis.
    c. Enhancing bacterial DNA replication.
    d. Stimulating bacterial folic acid production.
15. Which dietary habit is associated with a decreased risk of colon cancer?
    a. Increasing dairy product consumption
    b. Reducing high-fat food intake
    c. Eating more vitamin C-rich foods
    d. Avoiding artificial food dyes
16. Someone with over 40 years of asbestos exposure is at greatest risk for developing which type of cancer?
    a. Bladder cancer
    b. Leukemia
    c. Stomach cancer
    d. Lung cancer

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